Chrysanthemum
Well-Known Member
Something that crossed my mind recently: while functioning labels when relating to autism are not official diagnostic labels, the term a person with "high-functioning" autism refers to a person with autism who has an IQ over 70 (source: https://www.webmd.com/brain/autism/high-functioning-autism).
I understand that since 2013 when the DSM-V was published Asperger's Syndrome is not an official diagnostic category according to the DSM-V, and by definition people with Asperger's Syndrome have no significant language delay, so whereas in the past I thought of people with high-functioning autism as having a language delay or language difficulties, now I guess the term people with "high-functioning autism" could include people with "Asperger's Syndrome".
I imagine that it is possible to have severe language difficulties (even to the point of being nonverbal), severe difficulties with social interaction, and very frequent repetitive behaviours or very restricted interest while having an IQ over 70. I also think that it is possible that a person whose IQ is measured as below 70 (I am no expert, but I am not saying that I believe that IQ tests are always accurate either) or whose actual IQ is below 70 can have strong language skills and little to no difficulties with social interaction, or if the person with an IQ below 70 has autism, perhaps it is possible for the person to have little to no language delay in or little to no difficulties with language/verbal communication and relatively mild difficulties with social interaction?
So if "high-functioning autism" simply refers to the presence of both autism and an IQ over 70, might it be possible for a person with high-functioning autism to actually have more difficulties with verbal and/or written communication and social interaction than a person with autism who has an IQ below 70 who has strong language abilities and mild difficulties with social interaction?
If so, would it be possible for a person with "high-functioning" autism to have moderate to severe autism, and for a person with an IQ below 70 to have mild autism? In other words, is it possible for a person with "high-functioning" autism to actually be more severely affected by autism than a person with autism with an IQ below 70?
I understand that since 2013 when the DSM-V was published Asperger's Syndrome is not an official diagnostic category according to the DSM-V, and by definition people with Asperger's Syndrome have no significant language delay, so whereas in the past I thought of people with high-functioning autism as having a language delay or language difficulties, now I guess the term people with "high-functioning autism" could include people with "Asperger's Syndrome".
I imagine that it is possible to have severe language difficulties (even to the point of being nonverbal), severe difficulties with social interaction, and very frequent repetitive behaviours or very restricted interest while having an IQ over 70. I also think that it is possible that a person whose IQ is measured as below 70 (I am no expert, but I am not saying that I believe that IQ tests are always accurate either) or whose actual IQ is below 70 can have strong language skills and little to no difficulties with social interaction, or if the person with an IQ below 70 has autism, perhaps it is possible for the person to have little to no language delay in or little to no difficulties with language/verbal communication and relatively mild difficulties with social interaction?
So if "high-functioning autism" simply refers to the presence of both autism and an IQ over 70, might it be possible for a person with high-functioning autism to actually have more difficulties with verbal and/or written communication and social interaction than a person with autism who has an IQ below 70 who has strong language abilities and mild difficulties with social interaction?
If so, would it be possible for a person with "high-functioning" autism to have moderate to severe autism, and for a person with an IQ below 70 to have mild autism? In other words, is it possible for a person with "high-functioning" autism to actually be more severely affected by autism than a person with autism with an IQ below 70?