Chrysanthemum
Well-Known Member
So I have read that the difference between "high-functioning autism" (I know it's not an official diagnostic label) and Asperger's is that high-functioning autism includes speech delay whereas Asperger's doesn't. However, while thinking about this, I thought of something: according to the DSM-IV, the "impairment in communication" criteria of which one mentioned must be met to be diagnosed with "Autistic Disorder" includes:
"
2. Qualitative impairments in communication as manifested by at least one of the following:
a. delay in, or total lack of, the development of spoken language (not accompanied by an attempt to compensate through alternative modes of communication such as gesture or mime).
b. in individuals with adequate speech, marked impairment in the ability to initiate or sustain a conversation with others.
c. stereotyped and repetitive use of language or idiosyncratic language.
d. lack of varied, spontaneous, make-believe play or social imitative play appropriate to developmental level."
Not all of these "qualitative impairments", of which only one needs to be met for "Autistic Disorder" prior to 2013, necessitates spoken language delay; also, one of the "impairments" mention a spoken language delay but "not accompanied by an attempt to compensate through alternative modes of communication such as gesture or mime". So it seems that it is possible for an individual to have autism and be labelled as "high-functioning" without language delay, but also that even if they did have significant language delay, if they did compensated through "alternative modes of communication" such as "gestures or mime" (also I'm just wondering does writing count as an "alternative modes of communication" because I think it actually is one) without having the other listed communication impairments they wouldn't meet the criteria for "Autistic Disorder" (maybe would for PDD-NOS)? And if it's delay in spoken language without compensation why didn't they just say delay in ALL communication (including non-verbal communication)?
"
2. Qualitative impairments in communication as manifested by at least one of the following:
a. delay in, or total lack of, the development of spoken language (not accompanied by an attempt to compensate through alternative modes of communication such as gesture or mime).
b. in individuals with adequate speech, marked impairment in the ability to initiate or sustain a conversation with others.
c. stereotyped and repetitive use of language or idiosyncratic language.
d. lack of varied, spontaneous, make-believe play or social imitative play appropriate to developmental level."
Not all of these "qualitative impairments", of which only one needs to be met for "Autistic Disorder" prior to 2013, necessitates spoken language delay; also, one of the "impairments" mention a spoken language delay but "not accompanied by an attempt to compensate through alternative modes of communication such as gesture or mime". So it seems that it is possible for an individual to have autism and be labelled as "high-functioning" without language delay, but also that even if they did have significant language delay, if they did compensated through "alternative modes of communication" such as "gestures or mime" (also I'm just wondering does writing count as an "alternative modes of communication" because I think it actually is one) without having the other listed communication impairments they wouldn't meet the criteria for "Autistic Disorder" (maybe would for PDD-NOS)? And if it's delay in spoken language without compensation why didn't they just say delay in ALL communication (including non-verbal communication)?