dragoncat16
Active Member
If someone is harassed/discriminated at work on the basis of "poor people skills" or something similar, and has later (within a few months) been diagnosed with Aspergers, is the harassment/discrimination still considered unlawful? Would the condition have had to be diagnosed and disclosed beforehand? Would it have had to be disclosed to the specific person/people who did the harassing or only to the employer?
Is the claim of an employee having "poor people skills" (or several other similar phrases) enough for the employer to have realised that the person possibly had undiagnosed AS/ASD? This is a large employer with thousands of employees, not a small firm. Were they required by law to have preventative measures and rules in place to prevent this kind of mistreatment?
With all the bullying that goes on in the UK, I am very surprised that one is protected from it only if they have a protected characteristic, and otherwise, they can be treated any way at all and apparently also dismissed at will.
If the employer has refused to take action and has, in fact, dimissed the employee that has been mistreated after that employee complained about the harassment, is that considered victimisation, even though there were supposedly all sorts of reasons over the long term (mostly associated with the "poor people skills") for dismissing the person, which were incidentally not disclosed to the employee at performance reviews, etc.?
All the examples in the publications put out by e.g. ACAS seem to have the employee first disclosing the disability to the employer, and then the employer's actions after that disclosure are brought into question, and the employer has to specifically say the decisions are based on the disability in order for it to be unlawful. What are the requirements for a reasonable expectation that an employer would have been aware of a disability before the disclosure? Are phrases such as "poor people skills" (and many others) thrown around in emails from colleagues and the Line Manager, enough, or does the specific condition (AS or whatever) have to be mentioned and attached to any harassing behaviour by colleagues or discriminatory decisions made by the employer?
In this case, I refer to emails, video recordings, and other provable events and actions, even perpretrated by the Line Manager, who had a cute name for any encounter another colleague had with the individual with AS, and falsified performance reports, etc. to make the employee with AS look bad when considered for future employment, which was subsequently denied to that person. But, nobody ever mentioned AS, just referred to problems with the victim's social interactions as a black mark against that person and a reason to ridicule and shun that person in meetings, in front of clients (in this case, students), and in front of other colleagues to completely destroy that person's reputation.
Does anyone know about this from a legal standpoint or have any personal experience in this from tribunals, etc.?
Thanks.
Is the claim of an employee having "poor people skills" (or several other similar phrases) enough for the employer to have realised that the person possibly had undiagnosed AS/ASD? This is a large employer with thousands of employees, not a small firm. Were they required by law to have preventative measures and rules in place to prevent this kind of mistreatment?
With all the bullying that goes on in the UK, I am very surprised that one is protected from it only if they have a protected characteristic, and otherwise, they can be treated any way at all and apparently also dismissed at will.
If the employer has refused to take action and has, in fact, dimissed the employee that has been mistreated after that employee complained about the harassment, is that considered victimisation, even though there were supposedly all sorts of reasons over the long term (mostly associated with the "poor people skills") for dismissing the person, which were incidentally not disclosed to the employee at performance reviews, etc.?
All the examples in the publications put out by e.g. ACAS seem to have the employee first disclosing the disability to the employer, and then the employer's actions after that disclosure are brought into question, and the employer has to specifically say the decisions are based on the disability in order for it to be unlawful. What are the requirements for a reasonable expectation that an employer would have been aware of a disability before the disclosure? Are phrases such as "poor people skills" (and many others) thrown around in emails from colleagues and the Line Manager, enough, or does the specific condition (AS or whatever) have to be mentioned and attached to any harassing behaviour by colleagues or discriminatory decisions made by the employer?
In this case, I refer to emails, video recordings, and other provable events and actions, even perpretrated by the Line Manager, who had a cute name for any encounter another colleague had with the individual with AS, and falsified performance reports, etc. to make the employee with AS look bad when considered for future employment, which was subsequently denied to that person. But, nobody ever mentioned AS, just referred to problems with the victim's social interactions as a black mark against that person and a reason to ridicule and shun that person in meetings, in front of clients (in this case, students), and in front of other colleagues to completely destroy that person's reputation.
Does anyone know about this from a legal standpoint or have any personal experience in this from tribunals, etc.?
Thanks.